Mathematics Weblog
This site uses LatexRender for the mathematics
Powers and Logs
Monday 23 February 2004 at 8:10 pm | In Articles | Post CommentProve that
The proof should show you how this generalises. If you have studied group theory you can extend this even further by showing that , where is defined by , is an abelian group.
Why can’t 1 be an element of this group?
No Comments yet »
RSS feed for comments on this post. TrackBack URI
Leave a comment
Powered by WordPress with Pool theme design by Borja Fernandez.
Entries and comments feeds.
Valid XHTML and CSS. ^Top^